Questions From ACT






1. According to the information in Figure 1, which of the following cities receives the LEAST percent of possible sunshine?
         A. Albuquerque
         B. Columbia
         C. Louisville
         D. New Orleans





2. According to the information in Figure 3, the greatest heat gained through double-pane glass occurs in which of the following cities?
         A. Albuquerque
         B. Minneapolis
         C. New Orleans
         D. Phoenix





3. According to the data, the greatest net heat loss through a single-pane window occurred in which city?
         A. Concord
         B. Huron
         C. Minneapolis
         D. Phoenix





4. Indianapolis, Indiana, receives 51% possible sunshine and has an average temperature of 40.3°F during the heating season. On the basis of the data presented, the net heat gained by a double-pane window in Indianapolis would be approximately:
         A. –15 Btu/hr/ft2.
         B. 7 Btu/hr/ft2.11
         C. 11 Btu/hr/ft2.
         D. 27 Btu/hr/ft2.





5. Which of the following hypotheses about the relationship between the percent of possible sunshine and average outdoor temperature during the heating season is best supported by the data?
         A. As the percent of possible sunshine increases, the average temperature decreases.
         B. As the percent of possible sunshine increases, the average temperature increases.
         C. The average temperature is not directly related to the percent of possible sunshine.
         D. The percent of possible sunshine depends on the length of the heating season, rather than the average temperature.





6. The data suggest that subjecting plants to which of the following conditions would result in the greatest seed masses?
         A. 8 hours of light, adequate water supply, and 23oC
         B. 8 hours of light, decreased water supply, and 23oC
         C. 14 hours of light, adequate water supply, and 23oC
         D. 14 hours of light, decreased water supply, and 29oC





7. Which of the following conclusions is NOT consistent with the data presented in Table 2?
         A. The last seed released from the plant will have a greater mass than the first seed released.
         B. The first seed released from the plant will have a The first seed released from the plant will have a greater mass than the last seed released.
         C. The last seed released from the plant's fruit is the farthest from the stem.
         D. Seeds of the smallest mass are located farthest from the plant's stem.





8. Suppose some of the plants in the study had been exposed to 8 hours of sunlight and a temperature of 29oC. If no other variables were introduced, which of the following would be the most reasonable prediction of the average mass of the seed(s) produced under those circumstances?
         A. 8.30 mg
         B. 7.10 mg
         C. 6.50 m
         D. 4.85 mg





9. Which graph accurately represents Galileo's theory of the relationship between speed and time for an object falling from rest under conditions of negligible air resistance?
         A.
         B.
         C.
         D.





10. A book dropped from a height of 1 meter falls to the floor in t seconds. To be consistent with Aristotle's views, from what height, in meters, should a book 3 times as heavy be dropped so that it will fall to the floor in the same amount of time?
         A. 1/9
         B. 1/3
         C. 1
         D. 3





11. Suppose a heavy object falls to the ground in t seconds when dropped from shoulder height. According to Galileo, if air resistance were negligible, how many seconds would it take an object half as heavy to fall to the ground from the same height?
         A. 0.5t
         B. 1.0t
         C. 1.5t
         D. 2.0t





12. A piece of putty weighing 2 pounds is dropped down a shaft from the top of a tall building; 1 second later, a 3 pound piece of putty is dropped down the shaft. According to Aristotle, what happens to the 2 pieces of putty if they fall for a relatively long time?
         A. The separation between the 2 pieces constantly increases until they strike the ground.
         B. The separation between the 2 pieces is constant until they strike the ground.
         C. The heavier piece catches up to the smaller piece, and the 2 pieces travel together with the speed of the heavier piece.
         D. The heavier piece catches up to the smaller piece, and the 2 pieces travel together with a speed faster than the speed of either.





13. The detector on the mass spectrometer shown in Figure 1 would NOT measure the m/z ratios of substances that:
         A. are positively charged.
         B. are ions.
         C. have more than 1 isotope.
         D. have no charges.





14. Based on the data in Table 1, a scientist stated that an atom of 20Ne has an atomic mass of 20. In order to make this statement, the scientist assumed that:
         A. the m/z ratio of 20 results from a doubly charged 40Ne atom.
         B. electron mass is negligible compared to atomic mass.
         C. the m/z ratio of 20 results from 2 atoms of Ne colliding to form a molecule.
         D. the detector adds electrons to the ions before it counts the charges.





15. If 2 Cl2+ ions are formed from a Cl2 molecule, how many electrons are lost from the original Cl2 molecule?
         A. 0
         B. 1
         C. 3
         D. 4





16. If the kinetic energy and the velocity of a Cl+ ion were compared to that of a Cl2+ ion, the Cl+ ion would have:
         A. a greater kinetic energy and a greater velocity.a greater a greater kinetic energy and a greater velocity
         B. a greater kinetic energy but the same velocity.
         C. the same kinetic energy but a larger velocity.
         D. the same kinetic energy and the same velocity.





17. According to Figure 2, which of the following minerals would most typically be found only in rocks of a medium grade?
         A. Muscovite
         B. Biotite
         C. Kyanite
         D. Plagioclase





18. According to Figure 1, a Facies G rock will most likely form under which of the following pressure and temperature conditions?
         A.
         B.
         C.
         D.





19. Figure 1 indicates that as depth increases, pressure:
         A. decreases only.
         B. remains the same.
         C. increases only.
         D. increases, then decreases.





20. According to Figure 2, the presence of which of the following minerals in a metamorphic rock would be least helpful in determining that rock’s grade?
         A. Chlorite
         B. Muscovite
         C. Staurolite
         D. Plagioclase





21. Hornfels is a metamorphic rock formed when magma (molten rock) heats sedimentary rocks on Earth’s surface. According to Figure 1, hornfels is most likely a member of which of the following facies?
         A. Facies A
         B. Facies C
         C. Facies E
         D. Facies G





22. Which of the following phrases best describes the major point of difference between the 2 scientists’ hypotheses?
         A. The location of the event
         B. The speed the object was traveling
         C. The density of Earth's atmosphere
         D. The type of object that entered Earth's atmosphere





23. According to Scientist 2’s viewpoint, compared to the altitude at which a stony asteroid would have exploded in Earth’s atmosphere, a comet of similar size would most likely have exploded at:
         A. the same altitude.
         B. a higher altitude.
         C. a slightly lower altitude.
         D. a much lower altitude.





24. Scientist 1’s viewpoint indicates that when the materials that compose most of a comet are sufficiently heated, they change to:
         A. solids.
         B. gases.
         C. liquids.
         D. a vacuum.





25. Which of the following statements best describes how Scientist 2 would explain why no large, identifiable fragments of the object have been recovered?
         A. Any large, identifiable fragments that reached the ground have been removed from the area by erosion.
         B. Any large, identifiable fragments were thrown hundreds of kilometers from the site.
         C. No large, identifiable fragments of the object reached the ground.
         D. No large, identifiable fragments of the object have been recovered due to the soil conditions in the area.





26. How would the behavior of the asteroid differ from that described in Scientist 2’s viewpoint if the asteroid had not been flattened by the air pressure difference? The asteroid would:
         A. not have entered Earth’s atmosphere.
         B. have struck another planet in the solar system.
         C. have decelerated more gradually.
         D. have frozen.





27. Which of the following statements would both scientists most likely use to explain the damage to the forest caused by the object’s explosion? Energy from the explosion:
         A. traveled rapidly down to Earth’s surface.
         B. dissipated in the upper atmosphere.
         C. was released less than 1 km above Earth’s surface.
         D. was released as the object struck Earth’s surface.





28. Scientist 1’s viewpoint would be weakened by which of the following observations about comets, if true?
         A. Comets are composed mainly of frozen materials.
         B. Comets are much larger than 100 m in diameter.
         C. Comets often pass close enough to Earth to intersect Earth’s atmosphere.
         D. Comets orbit the Sun.





29. Based on the results of Study 3, one could generalize that compared to hand-planting of seeds, ant-planting of seeds results in:
         A. increased seed germination.
         B. increased seed production per plant.
         C. decreased plant survival after 1 year.
         D. decreased plant survival after 2 years.





30. Which of the following variables was controlled in the design of Study 2 ?
         A. The number of ants in each site
         B. The number of seed dishes placed in each site
         C. The mass of the elaiosome of each seed
         D. The type of seeds taken by the ants in each site





31. According to the results of the studies, Species A and Species B are most similar in that their:
         A. seed masses are the same.
         B. germination rates on ant waste piles are the same.
         C. percentages of elaiosome mass per seed are the same.
         D. rates of production of seeds after 1 year are the same.





32. In Study 2, Site 3 was used to study the:
         A. preference of a different ant species for the seeds of both plant species.
         B. seed preference of ants in an area in which both plant species were absent.
         C. growth and survival of both plant species in an area where ants were not present.
         D. effects of elaiosome mass on the seed preference of ants.





33. Which of the following is a weakness of the design of Study 2 ?
         A. Some plants were not present at each site.
         B. Some seeds were not present at each site.
         C. The seeds may have been removed from the dishes by animals other than ants.
         D. The plants may have been eaten by animals other than ants.





34. The results of Study 2 suggest that which of the following factors most affects the seed preference of ants?
         A. Seed mass
         B. Elaiosome mass
         C. Percentage of seed mass composed of elaiosome
         D. Abundance of a plant in a given area





35. The results of the 2 experiments support the conclusion that, for a given brand of tape, as the tape’s width increases, the force required to remove the tape from a given wrapping:
         A. increases only.
         B. decreases only.
         C. remains constant.
         D. varies, but with no particular trend.





36. In Experiment 2, had Brand X tape in a 4.0 cm width been tested, the force required to remove the tape from the plastic wrapping would have been closest to:
         A. 5.0 N.
         B. 7.0 N.
         C. 9.0 N.
         D. 11.0 N.





37. Based on the average results of Experiments 1 and 2, which of the following brands of tape adhered better to the paper than to the plastic?
         A. Brand X
         B. Brand Y
         C. Brands X and Y
         D. Brands Y and Z





38. Which brand(s) of tape was/were used at only 2 different widths in both experiments?
         A. Brand X only
         B. Brand Y only
         C. Brand Z only
         D. Brands Y and Z only





39. For the students to determine the force required to remove tape from a wrapping, which of the following attractive forces had to exceed the adhesive force between the tape and the wrapping?
         A. The force between the clamp and the tape
         B. The force between the clamp and the paper or plastic wrapping
         C. The force between the Earth and the wrapping
         D. The force between the Earth and the tape





40. The students’ instructor gave them a strip of tape that was 2.5 cm wide and asked them to identify the brand. The students repeated the procedures from Experiments 1 and 2 using the tape and obtained average forces of 4.9 N for paper and 4.1 N for plastic. Which of the following brands would most likely have produced these results?
         A. Brand X only
         B. Brand Y only
         C. Brands X and Y only
         D. Brands Y and Z only





41. According to the information provided, heat flowed from the wall at temperature T2 to the wall at temperature T1 in which trial?
         A. Trial 4
         B. Trial 6
         C. Trial 10
         D. Trial 12





42. Insulators are materials that are poor heat conductors. According to Trials 7 through 10, a wall of a given thickness built of which of the following materials would provide the best insulation between a room and the outdoors?
         A. Wood
         B. Brick
         C. Concrete
         D. Steel





43. The results of Trials 1 and 5 are consistent with the hypothesis that heat flow from a hotter wall to a cooler wall is dependent on the:
         A. temperature of the hotter wall only.
         B. temperature of the cooler wall only.
         C. sum of the wall temperatures.
         D. difference between the wall temperatures.





44. Materials differ in their thermal conductivities: the higher the thermal conductivity, the greater the heat flow through the material. According to Trials 6 through 11, which of the following statements about relative thermal conductivities is NOT true?
         A. Brick has a higher thermal conductivity than glass wool.
         B. Brick has a higher thermal conductivity than wood
         C. Steel has a higher thermal conductivity than aluminum.
         D. Steel has a higher thermal conductivity than concrete.





45. Trials 1 and 3 provide evidence that heat flow depends on which of the following factors?
         A. Distance between walls
         B. Contact area
         C. Temperature of the hotter wall
         D. Temperature of the cooler wall





46. Which of the following is the most likely reason that amounts greater than 0.125 mol of NaCl were not tested in Experiment 3 ? The results showed that:
         A. adding more NaCl no longer increased the reaction rate.
         B. adding more NaCl would decrease the reaction rate.
         C. cthe boiling point was reached, so no further data could be gathered with this procedure.
         D. more Fe would need to be added for any greater increase in temperature to occur.





47. Based on the results of Experiment 3, one can reasonably conclude that as the amount of NaCl added increased from 0 mol to 0.100 mol, the maximum rise in temperature within 15 min of the start of the reaction:
         A. increased only.
         B. increased, then stayed the same.
         C. decreased only.
         D. decreased, then stayed the same.





48. If a trial had been done in Experiment 3 with 0.060 mol of NaCl added, the maximum temperature increase of the mixture that would have occurred within 15 min would have been closest to:
         A. 34°C.
         B. 42°C.
         C. 50°C.
         D. 62°C.





49. Which of the following factors affecting the reaction of Mg and H2O was studied in Experiment 1, but not in Experiments 2 or 3 ?
         A. Reaction temperature
         B. Addition of NaCl
         C. Addition of Fe
         D. Surface area of Mg





50. An engineer is designing an FRH, to be used with 100 mL of H2O, that will most rapidly generate the greatest amount of heat with the least amount of materials. Based on the results of Experiments 1, 2, and 3, which of the following specifications should she choose?
         A. 0.50 mol Fe powder, 0.125 mol NaCl, and 0.10 mol of Mg powder
         B. 0.50 mol Fe powder, 0.125 mol NaCl, and 0.10 mol of Mg ribbon
         C. 0.70 mol Fe powder, 0.125 mol NaCl, and 0.10 mol of Mg powder
         D. 0.70 mol Fe powder, 0.125 mol NaCl, and 0.10 mol of Mg ribbon





51. It has been observed that as Mg and H2O react, the Mg(OH)2 (magnesium hydroxide) that is produced forms an unreactive coating on the Mg surface. Which of the following models for why NaCl speeds up the reaction is most consistent with this observation and the results of the experiments?
         A. NaCl absorbs heat produced in the reaction, causing the Mg(OH)2 to melt off of the Mg surface.
         B. NaCl binds with Fe to inhibit the reaction of Mg with H2O.
         C. NaCl reacts with Mg(OH)2 to form a stronger barrier against H2O.
         D. NaCl reacts with Mg(OH)2, removing the coating from the Mg, allowing more contact with H2O.





52. According to Figure 2, Enzyme A has the fastest rate of reaction at a pH closest to:
         A. 5.
         B. 6.
         C. 8.
         D. 9.





53. Based on the data in Figure 2, at which of the following pHs, if any, do Enzymes A and B have the same acceleration factor?
         A. At pH 5 only
         B. At pH 6.7 only
         C. At all pHs between 2 and 11
         D. At none of the pHs shown in the fig





54. A scientist claims that the acceleration factor of Enzyme B is dependent on both enzyme and substrate concentration. Do the data in Figures 3 and 4 support her claim?
         A. No; the acceleration factor is dependent on enzyme concentration, but not on substrate concentration.
         B. No; the acceleration factor is not dependent on either enzyme or substrate concentration.
         C. Yes; the acceleration factor is dependent on enzyme concentration, but not on substrate concentration.
         D. Yes; the acceleration factor is dependent on both enzyme and substrate concentration.





55. A scientist claims that for the conditions used to obtain the data for Figure 4, the acceleration factor of Enzyme B at a given concentration will always be greater than that of Enzyme A at the same concentration. Do the data support his conclusion?
         A. No; Enzyme B shows a lower acceleration factor at all the enzyme concentrations tested.
         B. No; Enzyme B shows a lower acceleration factor at all the substrate concentrations tested.
         C. Yes; Enzyme B shows a higher acceleration factor at all the enzyme concentrations tested
         D. Yes; Enzyme B shows a higher acceleration factor at all the substrate concentrations tested.





56. The figure below shows the relative acceleration factors for pepsin, an enzyme found in the stomach, and trypsin, an enzyme found in the small intestine. Based on this figure and Figure 2, one would best conclude that compared to the acidity of solutions in the stomach, the solutions in the small intestine are:
         A. more acidic.
         B. less acidic.
         C. equally aci
         D. less acidic for pepsin, but more acidic for trypsin.






1. According to the information in Figure 1, which of the following cities receives the LEAST percent of possible sunshine?
         A. Albuquerque
         B. Columbia
         C. Louisville
         D. New Orleans
The correct answer is D

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2. According to the information in Figure 3, the greatest heat gained through double-pane glass occurs in which of the following cities?
         A. Albuquerque
         B. Minneapolis
         C. New Orleans
         D. Phoenix
The correct answer is F

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3. According to the data, the greatest net heat loss through a single-pane window occurred in which city?
         A. Concord
         B. Huron
         C. Minneapolis
         D. Phoenix
The correct answer is C

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4. Indianapolis, Indiana, receives 51% possible sunshine and has an average temperature of 40.3°F during the heating season. On the basis of the data presented, the net heat gained by a double-pane window in Indianapolis would be approximately:
         A. –15 Btu/hr/ft2.
         B. 7 Btu/hr/ft2.11
         C. 11 Btu/hr/ft2.
         D. 27 Btu/hr/ft2.
The correct answer is H

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The Source of the item is act plan





5. Which of the following hypotheses about the relationship between the percent of possible sunshine and average outdoor temperature during the heating season is best supported by the data?
         A. As the percent of possible sunshine increases, the average temperature decreases.
         B. As the percent of possible sunshine increases, the average temperature increases.
         C. The average temperature is not directly related to the percent of possible sunshine.
         D. The percent of possible sunshine depends on the length of the heating season, rather than the average temperature.
The correct answer is C

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6. The data suggest that subjecting plants to which of the following conditions would result in the greatest seed masses?
         A. 8 hours of light, adequate water supply, and 23oC
         B. 8 hours of light, decreased water supply, and 23oC
         C. 14 hours of light, adequate water supply, and 23oC
         D. 14 hours of light, decreased water supply, and 29oC
The correct answer is C

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7. Which of the following conclusions is NOT consistent with the data presented in Table 2?
         A. The last seed released from the plant will have a greater mass than the first seed released.
         B. The first seed released from the plant will have a The first seed released from the plant will have a greater mass than the last seed released.
         C. The last seed released from the plant's fruit is the farthest from the stem.
         D. Seeds of the smallest mass are located farthest from the plant's stem.
The correct answer is A

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8. Suppose some of the plants in the study had been exposed to 8 hours of sunlight and a temperature of 29oC. If no other variables were introduced, which of the following would be the most reasonable prediction of the average mass of the seed(s) produced under those circumstances?
         A. 8.30 mg
         B. 7.10 mg
         C. 6.50 m
         D. 4.85 mg
The correct answer is D

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9. Which graph accurately represents Galileo's theory of the relationship between speed and time for an object falling from rest under conditions of negligible air resistance?
         A.
         B.
         C.
         D.
The correct answer is A

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10. A book dropped from a height of 1 meter falls to the floor in t seconds. To be consistent with Aristotle's views, from what height, in meters, should a book 3 times as heavy be dropped so that it will fall to the floor in the same amount of time?
         A. 1/9
         B. 1/3
         C. 1
         D. 3
The correct answer is D

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11. Suppose a heavy object falls to the ground in t seconds when dropped from shoulder height. According to Galileo, if air resistance were negligible, how many seconds would it take an object half as heavy to fall to the ground from the same height?
         A. 0.5t
         B. 1.0t
         C. 1.5t
         D. 2.0t
The correct answer is B

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12. A piece of putty weighing 2 pounds is dropped down a shaft from the top of a tall building; 1 second later, a 3 pound piece of putty is dropped down the shaft. According to Aristotle, what happens to the 2 pieces of putty if they fall for a relatively long time?
         A. The separation between the 2 pieces constantly increases until they strike the ground.
         B. The separation between the 2 pieces is constant until they strike the ground.
         C. The heavier piece catches up to the smaller piece, and the 2 pieces travel together with the speed of the heavier piece.
         D. The heavier piece catches up to the smaller piece, and the 2 pieces travel together with a speed faster than the speed of either.
The correct answer is D

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13. The detector on the mass spectrometer shown in Figure 1 would NOT measure the m/z ratios of substances that:
         A. are positively charged.
         B. are ions.
         C. have more than 1 isotope.
         D. have no charges.
The correct answer is D

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14. Based on the data in Table 1, a scientist stated that an atom of 20Ne has an atomic mass of 20. In order to make this statement, the scientist assumed that:
         A. the m/z ratio of 20 results from a doubly charged 40Ne atom.
         B. electron mass is negligible compared to atomic mass.
         C. the m/z ratio of 20 results from 2 atoms of Ne colliding to form a molecule.
         D. the detector adds electrons to the ions before it counts the charges.
The correct answer is B

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15. If 2 Cl2+ ions are formed from a Cl2 molecule, how many electrons are lost from the original Cl2 molecule?
         A. 0
         B. 1
         C. 3
         D. 4
The correct answer is D

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16. If the kinetic energy and the velocity of a Cl+ ion were compared to that of a Cl2+ ion, the Cl+ ion would have:
         A. a greater kinetic energy and a greater velocity.a greater a greater kinetic energy and a greater velocity
         B. a greater kinetic energy but the same velocity.
         C. the same kinetic energy but a larger velocity.
         D. the same kinetic energy and the same velocity.
The correct answer is C

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17. According to Figure 2, which of the following minerals would most typically be found only in rocks of a medium grade?
         A. Muscovite
         B. Biotite
         C. Kyanite
         D. Plagioclase
The correct answer is C

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





18. According to Figure 1, a Facies G rock will most likely form under which of the following pressure and temperature conditions?
         A.
         B.
         C.
         D.
The correct answer is J

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





19. Figure 1 indicates that as depth increases, pressure:
         A. decreases only.
         B. remains the same.
         C. increases only.
         D. increases, then decreases.
The correct answer is C

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





20. According to Figure 2, the presence of which of the following minerals in a metamorphic rock would be least helpful in determining that rock’s grade?
         A. Chlorite
         B. Muscovite
         C. Staurolite
         D. Plagioclase
The correct answer is J

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





21. Hornfels is a metamorphic rock formed when magma (molten rock) heats sedimentary rocks on Earth’s surface. According to Figure 1, hornfels is most likely a member of which of the following facies?
         A. Facies A
         B. Facies C
         C. Facies E
         D. Facies G
The correct answer is A

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The Source of the item is act 59 F





22. Which of the following phrases best describes the major point of difference between the 2 scientists’ hypotheses?
         A. The location of the event
         B. The speed the object was traveling
         C. The density of Earth's atmosphere
         D. The type of object that entered Earth's atmosphere
The correct answer is J

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





23. According to Scientist 2’s viewpoint, compared to the altitude at which a stony asteroid would have exploded in Earth’s atmosphere, a comet of similar size would most likely have exploded at:
         A. the same altitude.
         B. a higher altitude.
         C. a slightly lower altitude.
         D. a much lower altitude.
The correct answer is B

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





24. Scientist 1’s viewpoint indicates that when the materials that compose most of a comet are sufficiently heated, they change to:
         A. solids.
         B. gases.
         C. liquids.
         D. a vacuum.
The correct answer is G

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





25. Which of the following statements best describes how Scientist 2 would explain why no large, identifiable fragments of the object have been recovered?
         A. Any large, identifiable fragments that reached the ground have been removed from the area by erosion.
         B. Any large, identifiable fragments were thrown hundreds of kilometers from the site.
         C. No large, identifiable fragments of the object reached the ground.
         D. No large, identifiable fragments of the object have been recovered due to the soil conditions in the area.
The correct answer is D

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





26. How would the behavior of the asteroid differ from that described in Scientist 2’s viewpoint if the asteroid had not been flattened by the air pressure difference? The asteroid would:
         A. not have entered Earth’s atmosphere.
         B. have struck another planet in the solar system.
         C. have decelerated more gradually.
         D. have frozen.
The correct answer is H

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





27. Which of the following statements would both scientists most likely use to explain the damage to the forest caused by the object’s explosion? Energy from the explosion:
         A. traveled rapidly down to Earth’s surface.
         B. dissipated in the upper atmosphere.
         C. was released less than 1 km above Earth’s surface.
         D. was released as the object struck Earth’s surface.
The correct answer is A

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





28. Scientist 1’s viewpoint would be weakened by which of the following observations about comets, if true?
         A. Comets are composed mainly of frozen materials.
         B. Comets are much larger than 100 m in diameter.
         C. Comets often pass close enough to Earth to intersect Earth’s atmosphere.
         D. Comets orbit the Sun.
The correct answer is G

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





29. Based on the results of Study 3, one could generalize that compared to hand-planting of seeds, ant-planting of seeds results in:
         A. increased seed germination.
         B. increased seed production per plant.
         C. decreased plant survival after 1 year.
         D. decreased plant survival after 2 years.
The correct answer is A

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





30. Which of the following variables was controlled in the design of Study 2 ?
         A. The number of ants in each site
         B. The number of seed dishes placed in each site
         C. The mass of the elaiosome of each seed
         D. The type of seeds taken by the ants in each site
The correct answer is G

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





31. According to the results of the studies, Species A and Species B are most similar in that their:
         A. seed masses are the same.
         B. germination rates on ant waste piles are the same.
         C. percentages of elaiosome mass per seed are the same.
         D. rates of production of seeds after 1 year are the same.
The correct answer is C

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





32. In Study 2, Site 3 was used to study the:
         A. preference of a different ant species for the seeds of both plant species.
         B. seed preference of ants in an area in which both plant species were absent.
         C. growth and survival of both plant species in an area where ants were not present.
         D. effects of elaiosome mass on the seed preference of ants.
The correct answer is G

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





33. Which of the following is a weakness of the design of Study 2 ?
         A. Some plants were not present at each site.
         B. Some seeds were not present at each site.
         C. The seeds may have been removed from the dishes by animals other than ants.
         D. The plants may have been eaten by animals other than ants.
The correct answer is C

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





34. The results of Study 2 suggest that which of the following factors most affects the seed preference of ants?
         A. Seed mass
         B. Elaiosome mass
         C. Percentage of seed mass composed of elaiosome
         D. Abundance of a plant in a given area
The correct answer is J

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





35. The results of the 2 experiments support the conclusion that, for a given brand of tape, as the tape’s width increases, the force required to remove the tape from a given wrapping:
         A. increases only.
         B. decreases only.
         C. remains constant.
         D. varies, but with no particular trend.
The correct answer is A

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





36. In Experiment 2, had Brand X tape in a 4.0 cm width been tested, the force required to remove the tape from the plastic wrapping would have been closest to:
         A. 5.0 N.
         B. 7.0 N.
         C. 9.0 N.
         D. 11.0 N.
The correct answer is G

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





37. Based on the average results of Experiments 1 and 2, which of the following brands of tape adhered better to the paper than to the plastic?
         A. Brand X
         B. Brand Y
         C. Brands X and Y
         D. Brands Y and Z
The correct answer is A

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





38. Which brand(s) of tape was/were used at only 2 different widths in both experiments?
         A. Brand X only
         B. Brand Y only
         C. Brand Z only
         D. Brands Y and Z only
The correct answer is G

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





39. For the students to determine the force required to remove tape from a wrapping, which of the following attractive forces had to exceed the adhesive force between the tape and the wrapping?
         A. The force between the clamp and the tape
         B. The force between the clamp and the paper or plastic wrapping
         C. The force between the Earth and the wrapping
         D. The force between the Earth and the tape
The correct answer is A

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





40. The students’ instructor gave them a strip of tape that was 2.5 cm wide and asked them to identify the brand. The students repeated the procedures from Experiments 1 and 2 using the tape and obtained average forces of 4.9 N for paper and 4.1 N for plastic. Which of the following brands would most likely have produced these results?
         A. Brand X only
         B. Brand Y only
         C. Brands X and Y only
         D. Brands Y and Z only
The correct answer is F

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





41. According to the information provided, heat flowed from the wall at temperature T2 to the wall at temperature T1 in which trial?
         A. Trial 4
         B. Trial 6
         C. Trial 10
         D. Trial 12
The correct answer is B

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





42. Insulators are materials that are poor heat conductors. According to Trials 7 through 10, a wall of a given thickness built of which of the following materials would provide the best insulation between a room and the outdoors?
         A. Wood
         B. Brick
         C. Concrete
         D. Steel
The correct answer is F

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





43. The results of Trials 1 and 5 are consistent with the hypothesis that heat flow from a hotter wall to a cooler wall is dependent on the:
         A. temperature of the hotter wall only.
         B. temperature of the cooler wall only.
         C. sum of the wall temperatures.
         D. difference between the wall temperatures.
The correct answer is D

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





44. Materials differ in their thermal conductivities: the higher the thermal conductivity, the greater the heat flow through the material. According to Trials 6 through 11, which of the following statements about relative thermal conductivities is NOT true?
         A. Brick has a higher thermal conductivity than glass wool.
         B. Brick has a higher thermal conductivity than wood
         C. Steel has a higher thermal conductivity than aluminum.
         D. Steel has a higher thermal conductivity than concrete.
The correct answer is H

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





45. Trials 1 and 3 provide evidence that heat flow depends on which of the following factors?
         A. Distance between walls
         B. Contact area
         C. Temperature of the hotter wall
         D. Temperature of the cooler wall
The correct answer is A

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





46. Which of the following is the most likely reason that amounts greater than 0.125 mol of NaCl were not tested in Experiment 3 ? The results showed that:
         A. adding more NaCl no longer increased the reaction rate.
         B. adding more NaCl would decrease the reaction rate.
         C. cthe boiling point was reached, so no further data could be gathered with this procedure.
         D. more Fe would need to be added for any greater increase in temperature to occur.
The correct answer is H

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





47. Based on the results of Experiment 3, one can reasonably conclude that as the amount of NaCl added increased from 0 mol to 0.100 mol, the maximum rise in temperature within 15 min of the start of the reaction:
         A. increased only.
         B. increased, then stayed the same.
         C. decreased only.
         D. decreased, then stayed the same.
The correct answer is A

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





48. If a trial had been done in Experiment 3 with 0.060 mol of NaCl added, the maximum temperature increase of the mixture that would have occurred within 15 min would have been closest to:
         A. 34°C.
         B. 42°C.
         C. 50°C.
         D. 62°C.
The correct answer is G

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





49. Which of the following factors affecting the reaction of Mg and H2O was studied in Experiment 1, but not in Experiments 2 or 3 ?
         A. Reaction temperature
         B. Addition of NaCl
         C. Addition of Fe
         D. Surface area of Mg
The correct answer is D

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





50. An engineer is designing an FRH, to be used with 100 mL of H2O, that will most rapidly generate the greatest amount of heat with the least amount of materials. Based on the results of Experiments 1, 2, and 3, which of the following specifications should she choose?
         A. 0.50 mol Fe powder, 0.125 mol NaCl, and 0.10 mol of Mg powder
         B. 0.50 mol Fe powder, 0.125 mol NaCl, and 0.10 mol of Mg ribbon
         C. 0.70 mol Fe powder, 0.125 mol NaCl, and 0.10 mol of Mg powder
         D. 0.70 mol Fe powder, 0.125 mol NaCl, and 0.10 mol of Mg ribbon
The correct answer is F

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





51. It has been observed that as Mg and H2O react, the Mg(OH)2 (magnesium hydroxide) that is produced forms an unreactive coating on the Mg surface. Which of the following models for why NaCl speeds up the reaction is most consistent with this observation and the results of the experiments?
         A. NaCl absorbs heat produced in the reaction, causing the Mg(OH)2 to melt off of the Mg surface.
         B. NaCl binds with Fe to inhibit the reaction of Mg with H2O.
         C. NaCl reacts with Mg(OH)2 to form a stronger barrier against H2O.
         D. NaCl reacts with Mg(OH)2, removing the coating from the Mg, allowing more contact with H2O.
The correct answer is D

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





52. According to Figure 2, Enzyme A has the fastest rate of reaction at a pH closest to:
         A. 5.
         B. 6.
         C. 8.
         D. 9.
The correct answer is F

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





53. Based on the data in Figure 2, at which of the following pHs, if any, do Enzymes A and B have the same acceleration factor?
         A. At pH 5 only
         B. At pH 6.7 only
         C. At all pHs between 2 and 11
         D. At none of the pHs shown in the fig
The correct answer is B

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





54. A scientist claims that the acceleration factor of Enzyme B is dependent on both enzyme and substrate concentration. Do the data in Figures 3 and 4 support her claim?
         A. No; the acceleration factor is dependent on enzyme concentration, but not on substrate concentration.
         B. No; the acceleration factor is not dependent on either enzyme or substrate concentration.
         C. Yes; the acceleration factor is dependent on enzyme concentration, but not on substrate concentration.
         D. Yes; the acceleration factor is dependent on both enzyme and substrate concentration.
The correct answer is J

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





55. A scientist claims that for the conditions used to obtain the data for Figure 4, the acceleration factor of Enzyme B at a given concentration will always be greater than that of Enzyme A at the same concentration. Do the data support his conclusion?
         A. No; Enzyme B shows a lower acceleration factor at all the enzyme concentrations tested.
         B. No; Enzyme B shows a lower acceleration factor at all the substrate concentrations tested.
         C. Yes; Enzyme B shows a higher acceleration factor at all the enzyme concentrations tested
         D. Yes; Enzyme B shows a higher acceleration factor at all the substrate concentrations tested.
The correct answer is A

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F





56. The figure below shows the relative acceleration factors for pepsin, an enzyme found in the stomach, and trypsin, an enzyme found in the small intestine. Based on this figure and Figure 2, one would best conclude that compared to the acidity of solutions in the stomach, the solutions in the small intestine are:
         A. more acidic.
         B. less acidic.
         C. equally aci
         D. less acidic for pepsin, but more acidic for trypsin.
The correct answer is G

The Assessment Standard(s) are:



The Source of the item is act 59 F